SSC Tax. Assistant Examination Solved 2007 Paper

1.A pond of water appears less deep due to
(a) reflection
(b) diffraction
(c) refraction
(d) polarisation
Ans: c
2.Newton’s 1st law of motion gives the concept of
(a) energy
(b) work
(c) momentum
(d) inertia
Ans: d
3.‘Therm’ is the unit of
(a) power
(b) heat
(c) light
(d) distance
Ans: b
4.Which of the following organisms is most likely to produce greenhouse gases such as nitrous oxide and methane?
(a) Fungi
(b) Earthworm
(c) Bacteria
(d) Green plants
Ans: c
5.The sensation of weightlessness in a spacecraft in an orbit is due to the
(a) absence of gravity outside
(b) acceleration in the orbit which is equal to the acceleration due to gravity outside
(c) presence of gravity outside but not inside the spacecraft
(d) fact that spacecraft in the orbit has no energy
6.Which mixture of gases is mainly stored as a liquid under pressure in LPG cylinder?
(a) Methane and Ethane
(b) Ethane and Hexane
(c) Propane and Butane
(d) Hexane and Octane
Ans: c
7.Which gas is used as fire extinguisher?
(a) Carbon dioxide
(b) Carbon monoxide
(c) Carbon suboixde
(d) Sulphur dioxide
Ans: a
8.The only age of India found in hill forests of Assam and Nagaland is
(a) Orangutan
(b) Gibbon
(c) Chimpanzee
(d) Gorilla
Ans: b
9.Which one of the following is related to Silviculture?
(a) Culture of Hilsa
(b) Culture of silver carp
(c) Culture of oil-producing plants
(d) Forests crops
Ans: d
10.Which one of the following does not secrete any digestive enzyme?
(a) Liver
(b) Salivery gland
(c) Glands of small intestine
(d) Pancreas
Ans: a
11.Which of the following creatures has maximum number of ribs?
(a) Crocodile
(b) Snake
(c) Ray fish
(d) Flying mammal
Ans: b
12.Which one of the following is not a plantation crop?
(a) Tea
(b) Coffee
(c) Rubber
(d) Sugarcane
Ans: d
13.In our Constitution, Economic Planning is included in
(a) Union list
(b) State list
(c) Concurrent list
(d) Not any specified list
Ans: c
14.The authority which is not established by the constitutional provisions is
(a) Finance Commission
(b) Planning Commission
(c) UPSC
(d) Election Commission
Ans: b
15.A parachute descends slowly whereas a stone dropped from the same height falls rapidly, because
(a) stone is heavier then parachute
(b) special mechanisms are present in parachute
(c) a parachute has a larger surface area and air resistance is more
(d) None of these
Ans: c

EPFO Social Security Assistant (SSA) Previous Paper 2007

Directions – (Q.1-25) what will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions?
1. 215.5 x 21? = 2112
(a) 2.18
(b) -17.5
(c) 6.5
(d) 5.5
2. 182×26÷91=?
(a) 52
(b) 25
(c) 65
(d) 39
3. 7100-? +41×25= 7225
(a) 7226
(b) 5000
(c) 7000
(d) 1000
4. 1\frac{1}{4} \times 2\frac{1}{5} \times 1\frac{1}{2} \times 1\frac{1}{2} = ?
(a) 4
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 3
(e) None of these
5. 10.0001+9.9999-8.9995 =?
(a) 10.9995
(b) 9.0005
(c) 11.0001
(d) 11.0001
(e) None of these
6. \frac{2}{9}
of \frac{{27}}{{32}}
of 256 = ?
(a) 16
(b) 32
(c) 64
(d) 48
(e) None of these
7. 1470÷21÷14=?
(a) 7
(b) 15
(c) 10
(d) 14
(e) None of these
8. 152\times 3\frac{2}{{19}} \times \frac{1}{{59}} = ?
(a) 19
(b) 7
(c) 18
(d) 8
(e) None of these
9. 64\times \sqrt ?  = 576
(a) 81
(b) 49
(c) 64
(d) 16
(e) None of these
10. 801.75-93.25\times 8 = ?
(a) 5668
(b) 56.75
(c) 566.8
(d) 55.25
(e) None of these
11. 350% of ? = 700
(a) 2
(b) 100
(c) 350
(d) 200
(e) None of these
12. 30.25 \times 8.05 = ?
(a) 240.5124
(b) 243.5025
(c) 243.5125
(d) 240.5025
(e) None of these
13. 6\frac{1}{3} + 2\frac{2}{3} + 4\frac{1}{6} = ?
(a) 13
(b) 13\frac{1}{6}
(c) 12\frac{5}{6}
(d) 13\frac{1}{3}
(e) None of these
14. 83293-7946-150 = ?
(a) 3683
(b) 73847
(c) 75197
(d) 75097
(e) None of these
15. 10% of 25% of 800 = ?
(a) 20
(b) 2
(c) 40
(d) 4
(e) None of these
16. \frac{{\sqrt {36}  \times 3 - 5 \times 7}}{{ - 4 \times \sqrt {289} }} = ?
(a) \frac{1}{2}
(b) \frac{1}{8}
(c) \frac{3}{4}
(d) 1
(e) None of these
17. 57.75 ÷7 = ?% of 20
(a) 35.25
(b) 40.25
(c) 42.25
(d) 41.25
(e) None of these
18. 42 \times 18 - {14^2} = ?
(a) 568
(b) 676
(c) 576
(d) 560
(e) None of these
19. 19.30 x 1.7 +13.46 = ?
(a) 46.72
(b) 46.27
(c) 292.588
(d) 46.77
(e) None of these
20. 5625 ÷ 75 + \sqrt ?
= ?
(a) 441
(b) 400
(c) 361
(d) 484
(e) None of these
21. 25% of 980 + ?% of 355 = 529
(a) 80
(b) 65
(c) 70
(d) 75
(e) None of these
22. {18^2} \div 81 \times 27 = ?
(a) 81
(b) 54
(c) 108
(d) 162
(e) None of these
23. 2\frac{2}{3} \times 4\frac{5}{6} + ? = 14
(a) 2\frac{1}{3}
(b) 1\frac{1}{6}
(c) 2\frac{1}{9}
(d) 1\frac{1}{9}
(e) None of these
24. 33\frac{1}{3}
% of 1260 + 80% of 755 = ?
(a) 976
(b) 1024
(c) 1048
(d) 952
(e) None of these
(0.25)2 + (0.15)2 = ?
(a) 0.0085
(b) 0.8
(c) 0.085
(d) 0.625
(e) None of these
26. The amount of simple interest accrued on a principal amount of Rs. 25,000 in 7 years is Rs. 21,000. What is the rate of interest p.c.p.a.?
(a) 15
(b) 10
(c) 18
(d) 20
(e) None of these
27. Inlet ‘1’ and ‘2’ together can fill a tank in 18 hours. Inlet ‘2’ can fill the tank on its own in 24 hours. In how many hours can inlet ‘1’ alone fill the tank?
(a) 48 hrs.
(b) 72 hrs.
(c) 60 hrs.
(d) 84 hrs.
(e) None of these
28. What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following number series?
, 3, 4\frac{2}{3}
,?, 8
(a) 6\frac{2}{3}
(b) 7\frac{1}{3}
(c) 6\frac{1}{3}
(d) 5\frac{2}{3}
(e) None of these
29. If the length of a rectangular field is 48 meters more than its breadth and the perimeter of the field is 800 meters, what is the area of the field in square meters?
(a) 39424
(b) 40000
(c) 31376
(d) Cannot be determined
(e) None of these
30. If the numerator and denominator of a fraction are increased by 33\frac{1}{3}
% and 66\frac{2}{3}
% respectively, the fraction becomes \frac{{36}}{{35}}
, what was the original fraction?
(a) \frac{{21}}{{27}}
(b) \frac{{28}}{{27}}
(c) \frac{{27}}{{14}}
(d) \frac{{22}}{7}
(e) None of these
31. In a class of 72 children, children are seated in rows and columns in such a way that the number of children in each row is 12.5% more than the number of children in each column. How many children are these in each row?
(a) 8
(b) 9
(c) 12
(d) 18
(e) None of these
32. In the following number series, only one number is wrong. Find out that wrong number.
1, 2, 2, 4, 8, 64, 256
(a) 4
(b) 8
(c) 64
(d) 256
(e) None of these
33. The perimeter of a square and a rectangle is the same. If the rectangle is 12 cms. by 10 cms., then by what percentage is the area of square more than that of the rectangle?
(a) 1
(b) 1\frac{1}{6}
(c) 1\frac{1}{3}
(d) \frac{2}{3}
(e) None of these
34. What will be the compound interest earned on an amount of Rs. 8,000 @20% p.a. in two years?
(a) Rs. 10,520
(b) Rs. 11,240
(c) Rs. 10,360
(d) Rs. 11,080
(e) None of these
35. Mr. Ahuja gave 30% of his money to his wife, half of the remaining to his daughter and the rest was to distributed among his five sons equally. If each son received Rs.14,000, what was the total amount he had?
(a) Rs. 2, 00,000
(b) Rs. 10,000
(c) Rs. 1,75,000
(d) Cannot be determined
(e) None of these
36. If the following fractions are arranged in the ascending order of their values, which one will be the fourth from the top?
(a) \frac{8}{9}
(b) \frac{{17}}{{20}}
(c) \frac{5}{6}
(d) \frac{7}{8}
(e) \frac{9}{{12}}
37. How much time will a 270 meter long train running at a speed of 360 meters per second take to cross a platform of equal length?
(a) 1.5 seconds
(b) 1.2 seconds
(c) 1.8 seconds
(d) 2.1 seconds
(e) None of these
38. First class train fare from Banglore to Hyderabad is Rs. 7,415 and Second class train fare for the same is Rs. 5,932. What is the ratio of Second class to First class fare?
(a) 5 : 16
(b) 4 : 33
(c) 4 : 5
(d) 5 : 41
(e) None of these
39. What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following number series?
16, 24, 12, ?, 9, 13.5
(a) 15
(b) 16
(c) 21
(d) 18
(e) None of these
40. If the remainder obtained by subtracting a number from its own square is 4 times the number, what is the number?
(a) 4
(b) 3
(c) 6
(d) 7
(e) None of these
41. The sum of ages of members (children and their parents) of a family is 360 years. If the sum of the ages of the children in the family is 240 years, what is the ratio of the ages of the husband to the wife?
(a) 3 : 2
(b) 2 : 3
(c) 1 : 2
(d) Cannot be determined
(e) None of these
42. When a person distributed sweets among a gathering of people, each person got 7 sweets and 14 sweets remained undistributed. If two more people had joined the gathering, no sweet would have remained undistributed. How many people had gathered?
(a) 70
(b) 56
(c) 63
(d) Cannot be determined
(e) None of these
43. If 4x + 6y = 32 and 4x – 2y = 4, then what is the value of 8y?
(a) 36
(b) 30
(c) 24
(d) 42
(e) None of these
44. What approximate value will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation?
239.99 ÷ 8.0001 x 9.99 = ?
(a) 240
(b) 300
(c) 360
(d) 480
(e) 420
45. In the following number series only one number is wrong. Find out that wrong number.
8, 13, 21, 32, 47, 63, 83
(a) 21
(b) 63
(c) 32
(d) 83
(e) 47
46. What is the circumference in centimeters of a circle whose are is 49\pi
square centimeters?
(a) 28\pi
(b) 14\pi
(c) 7\pi
(d) 21\pi
(e) None of these
47. The average of eight numbers taken together is 12. Two of these numbers are 0 and the remaining numbers are equal. What is the value of the non-zero number?
(a) 16
(b) 12
(c) 6
(d) 18
(e) None of these
48. A Compact Disc Player when sold for Rs. 13,600, incurred a loss of 15%. At what price should it have been be sold to make a profit of 35% on the cost?
(a) Rs. 5,600
(b) Rs. 21,600
(c) Rs. 20,400
(d) Rs. 4,800
(e) None of these
49. What will be the cost of tiling the floor @ Rs. 38 per square meter, if the hall is of a square shape and has a perimeter of 400 meters?
(a) 19,000
(b) 57,000
(c) 38,000
(d) 9,500
(e) None of these
50. London time is five and a half hours behind Delhi time. What time is it in London if it is 02:35 in Delhi?
(a) 21:05
(b) 08:05
(c) 21:35
(d) 07:05
(e) None of these
1. (c), 2. (a), 3. (b), 4. (e), 5. (c), 6. (d), 7. (b), 8. (d), 9. (a), 10. (e)
11. (d), 12. (c) , 13. (b), 14. (c), 15. (a), 16. (e), 17. (d), 18. (d), 19. (b), 20. (a)
21. (a), 22. (c), 23. (d), 24. (b), 25. (c), 26. (e), 27. (b), 28. (c), 29. (a), 30. (e)
31. (b), 32. (c), 33. (e), 34. (e), 35. (a), 36. (c), 37. (a), 38. (c), 39. (d), 40. (e)
41. (d), 42. (d), 43. (e), 44. (b), 45. (e), 46. (b), 47. (a), 48. (b), 49. (e), 50. (b)

SSC Data Entry Operator: Solved Question Paper

1. The banks use ……………. device to minimize conversion process.
(a) Keyboard
(b) MICR
(c) OCR
(d) Scanner
2. ……………… can’t be used for source of data automation.
(a) POS terminal
(b) OCR
(c) Keyboard
(d) UPC
3. Under which case will intranet be an effective networking tool?
(a) In a distributed decision-making environment
(b) Where heterogeneous applications are involved
(c) In a centralised organization
(d) In a decentralised organization
4. When an organization gives contract for development of software, it has to give data to the service provider. In Such cases, the ownership of data should be_________
(a) Transferred to the service provider
(b) With the client/organization that outsource services
(c) Shared by both parties
(d) Not transferred
5. A modem performs_________
(a) Modulation
(b) Demodulation
(c) Data compression
(d) All of these
6. Which of the following is NOT done by modem?
(a) Transmission Speed
(b) Data Accuracy
(b) Error detection and Correction
(d) Data Compression
7. A program coded in programming language is____________.
(a) Target code
(b) Source code
(c) Block
(d) None of these
8. “Platform” in computer world means___________.
(a) Computer hardware used
(b) Operating Systems used
(c) Both of these
(d) None of these
9. Which of these biometric tools use thermal sensors along with infrared rays for identification?
(a) Key stroke dynamics
(b) Iris Retinal scans
(c) Speech recognition
(d)Fingerprint scanning
10. What is incorrect about software?
(a) It can manipulate computer
(b) It has programs, instructions
(c) It can be touched
(d) It can be touched
11. Disadvantage of distributed database is.
(a) Unreliability
(b) Easy implementation
(c) Insecurity
(d) High communication cost
12. Which of the following transmission techniques let computer to alternatively send and receive data?
(a) Simplex
(b) Half duplex
(c) Full duplex
(d) Multiplexing
13. What is NOT a feature of networking?
(a) Reliability
(b) Greater storage space
(c) Connectivity
(d) All are features of networking
14. Taking back-up of a file against crash is a
(a) Preventive measure
(b) Curative measure
(c) Decisive measure
(d) None of these
15. A memory that is referred by its contents instead of physical address is called ________
(a) Associative memory
(b) Content addressable storage
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
16. Most dangerous risk in leaking of information is :
(a) Ready access to online terminals
(b) Online processing of data
(c) Ignorance about the existence of risk
(d) All of these
17. A camera is an
(a) Input device
(b) Can be either input or output
(c) Processing machine
(b) Output device
18. Using anti-virus software is
(a) Preventive measure
(b) Detective measure
(c) Corrective measure
(d) All the above
19. An online transaction is
(a) One that is done in real time
(b) Transaction done via internet
(c) One that is done via telephone
(d) None of these
20. A clerk in a bank has to access data n customer account. Logical access control for these users would be.
(a) Use of individual passwords
(b) Use of an Accounts Receivable Section password
(c) Use of individual passwords plus separate access passwords for customer data and product data
(d) Can’t say
21. To stop unauthorized access to the computer system we should
(a) Have a trustworthy system administrator
(b) Have a good passwords policy
(c) Have a sound encryption policy
(d) All of the above
22. Which cannot assure data accuracy in an application?
(a) Limit and reasonableness test
(b) Echo checking
(c) Control total
(d) None of these
23. Maximum storage space is available on
(a) CDs
(b) ROM
(c) Hard disks
(d) Floppies
24. Jon Von Neumann developed:
(a) First electronic chip flip flop
(b) Stored-program concept
(c) The first electronic computer
(d) None of these
25. Which of the following is single user computer with many features and good processing power?
(a) Minicomputer
(b) Workstation
(c) Macintosh
(d) None of these
1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (d) 6. (b) 7. (b) 8. (c) 9. (c) 10. (d)
11. (c) 12. (b) 13. (d) 14. (b) 15. (b)16. (c) 17. (b) 18. (a) 19. (b) 20. (a)
21. (b) 22. (a) 23. (b) 24. (a) 25. (b)

S.S.C. Tax Assistant Exam. Solved Paper

S.S.C. Tax Assistant Exam., 2008
(Held on 29-3-2009)
General Awareness : Solved Paper

1. Who was the first Indian woman to scale the Mount Everest ?
(A) Bachhendri Pal
(B) Phew Dorajee
(C) Onn Saang Su Kayi
(D) Yoko Ono
Ans : (A)

2. Epicentre is concerned with—
(A) Earthquake
(B) Volcano
(C) Cyclone
(D) Land-sliding
Ans : (A)

3. Name of S. Chandrashekhar is associated with which of the following subjects ?
(A) Cosmology
(B) Chemistry
(C) Fluid Mechanics
(D) Astrophysics
Ans : (D)

4. Which scale is used to measure the intensity of earthquake ?
(A) Richter
(B) Metric
(C) Centigrade
(D) Newton
Ans : (A)

5. Who was the only Indian woman to be elected as the President of U.N. General Assembly ?
(A) Vijayalakshmi Pandit
(B) V. K. Krishna Menon
(C) Jawaharlal Nehru
(D) Rajeshwar Dayal
Ans : (A)

6. Sea-coast of which of the following states is the longest ?
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Orissa
(D) Tamil Nadu
Ans : (A)

7. ‘RAF’ is the abbreviated form of which of the following ?
(A) Ready Action Force
(B) Rapid Action Force
(C) Reverse Action Force
(D) Repeat Action Force
Ans : (B)

8. Bolometer is used to measure which of the following ?
(A) Frequency
(B) Temperature
(C) Velocity
(D) Wavelength
Ans : (B)

9. Tehri dam is built on which of the following rivers ?
(A) Ganga
(B) Brahmputra
(C) Bhagirathi
(D) Yamuna
Ans : (C)

10. Which of the following is incorrect ?
(A) AIDS is a retroviral disease
(B) AIDS disease spreads due to homosexual and bisexual relations
(C) AIDS was first diagnosed in 1981 in USA
(D) Due to AIDS, ano-genetal warts are formed
Ans : (C)

11. Who lost the AFC (Asian Football Confederation Final, 2008 to India) ?
(A) Myanmar
(B) Sri Lanka
(C) Pakistan
(D) Tajikistan
Ans : (D)

12. Who won the U.S. Open Tennis Men’s Singles in August 2008 ?
(A) Roger Federer
(B) Rafael Nadal
(C) Mahesh Bhupati
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)

13. After the terrorist attack of 26th November, 2008 in Mumbai, who was appointed as the Home Minister of India ?
(A) Sh. Shivraj Patil
(B) Sh. Pranab Mukherjee
(C) Sh. P. Chidambaram
(D) Sh. A.K. Anthony
Ans : (C)

14. Which one of the following has been appointed as the Secretary of State by Barack Obama, President of U.S.A. ?
(A) Hillary Clinton
(B) Joe Biden
(C) Condoleezza Rice
(D) Ben Porritt
Ans : (A)

15. Name the winner of the Sanjay Chopra National Award for Bravery 2008—
(A) Saumika Mishra
(B) Santosh Sen
(C) Amit Kumar
(D) Pappu
Ans : (A)

16. The Dadasaheb Phalke Award for 2006 was awarded by the President of India to—
(A) Tapan Sinha
(B) Madhur Bhandarkar
(C) Dilip Kumar
(D) Lata Mangeshkar
Ans : (A)

17. The concept of the Directive Principles of State Policy was borrowed by our Constitution from the Constitution of—
(A) U.S.A.
(B) Canada
(C) U.S.S.R.
(D) Ireland
Ans : (D)

18. ‘Jeevan Aastha’—a scheme relating to investment and saving, was launched during 2008-09, by—
(A) Tata AIG
(B) ICICI Prudential
(C) Bajaj Allianz
Ans : (D)

19. The three medals that Indians won in the Beijing Olympics were in—
(A) Shooting, Boxing and Wrestling
(B) Shooting, Boxing and Archery
(C) Shooting, Wrestling and Tennis
(D) Shooting, Boxing and Hockey
Ans : (A)

20. ATM stands for—
(A) Automatic Teller Machine
(B) Automated Teller Machine
(C) Automatic Tally Machine
(D) Automated Tally Mechanism
Ans : (A)

21. There is no provision in the Constitution for the impeachment of the—
(A) Chief Justice of India
(B) Chief Justice of a High Court
(C) Governor
(D) Vice President
Ans : (C)

22. Only one of the following can be the ex-officio Chairman of the Planning Commission. He is the—
(A) Minister for Planning and Development
(B) Home Minister
(C) Prime Minister
(D) Finance Minister
Ans : (C)

23. The train service—‘Thar Express’ between India and Pakistan, originates in India from—
(A) Jaisalmer
(B) Jodhpur
(C) Bikaner
(D) Barmer
Ans : (D)

24. Which one of the following cricketers has been awarded the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award for the year 2007 ?
(A) Sachin Tendulkar
(B) Saurav Ganguly
(C) M.S. Dhoni
(D) Virender Sehwag
Ans : (C)

25. Garba is a dance form of—
(A) Gujarat
(B) Rajasthan
(C) Orissa
(D) Assam
Ans : (A)

26. Which one of the following countries has become the world leader in the carbon credit business in 2007 ?
(A) India
(B) Brazil
(C) Mexico
(D) China
Ans : (D)

27. Who is named as the Flying Sikh of India ?
(A) Mohinder Singh
(B) Ajit Pal Singh
(C) Joginder Singh
(D) Milkha Singh
Ans : (D)

28. Find the odd one (with reference of 26th January 2009 awards).
(A) Mahendra Singh Dhoni
(B) Harbhajan Singh
(C) Pankaj Advani
(D) Abhinav Bindra
Ans : (B)

29. Fundamental Rights are not given to—
(A) Bankrupt persons
(B) Aliens
(C) Persons suffering from incurable disease
(D) Political sufferers
Ans : (B)

30. Which is the lowest layer of the atmosphere ?
(A) Troposphere
(B) Stratosphere
(C) Mesosphere
(D) Thermosphere
Ans : (A)

31. Which of the following, according to Mahatma Gandhi, is the strongest force in the world ?
(A) Non-violence of the brave
(B) Non-violence of the weak
(C) Non-violence of the coward
(D) Non-violence of the downtrodden
Ans : (A)

32. Why was the name of Kuber Singh, a 17-year old student of G.D. Goenka World School, in the news on 20th January 2009 ?
(A) He was declared as the winner of the Sanjay Chopra Award
(B) He broke the record for fastest memorising of a 9 digit number
(C) He witnessed the Swearingin-Ceremony of President Barack Obama of USA, as an official invitee
(D) He solved the crossword puzzle of the famous USA magazine
Ans : (C)

33. What is the tenure of the Prime Minister of India ?
(A) Conterminous with the tenure of the Lok Sabha
(B) Conterminous with the tenure of the President
(C) As long as he enjoys the support of a majority in the Lok Sabha
(D) Five years
Ans : (C)

34. What was the reason for Gandhiji’s support to decentralization of power ?
(A) Decentralisation ensures more participation of the people into democracy
(B) India had decentralisation of power in the past
(C) Decentralisation was essential for the economic development of the country
(D) Decentralisation can prevent communalism
Ans : (C)

35. Consent of the people means consent of—
(A) A few people
(B) All people
(C) Majority of the people
(D) Leader of the people
Ans : (C)

36. For how many categories has A. R. Rehman, the Golden Globe Award Winner for original sound track in the film ‘Slum Dog Millionaire’ been nominated at the Oscars ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 9
Ans : (C)

37. Which of the following is not a Panchayati Raj Institution ?
(A) Gram Sabha
(B) Gram Panchayat
(C) Gram Cooperative Society
(D) Nyaya Panchayat
Ans : (C)

38. Who among the following were members of the Swaraj Party ?
1. Motilal Nehru
2. Sardar Patel
3. Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 only
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Ans : (B)

39. Match the following—
Union Territory
(a) Puducherry
(b) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
(c) Lakshadweep
(d) Daman and Diu
Jurisdiction (High Court)
1. Kerala
2. Bombay
3. Madras
4. Calcutta
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 4 1 2
(B) 1 3 4 2
(C) 1 2 3 4
(D) 1 4 3 2
Ans : (A)

40. Which of the following is an extra-constitutional and nonstatutory body ?
(A) Finance Commission
(B) Planning Commission
(C) Union Public Service Commission
(D) Election Commission
Ans : (B)

41. Which of the following is true regarding ‘No Confidence Motion’ in the Parliament ?
1. There is no mention of it in the Constitution.
2. A period of six months must lapse between the introduction of one ‘No Confidence Motion’ and another.
3. Atleast 100 persons must support such a motion before it is introduced in the House.
4. It can be introduced in the Lok Sabha only.
(A) 2 and 4
(B) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 1 and 4
Ans : (D)

42. Deep fried food materials are carcinogenic because they are rich in—
(A) Fats
(B) Hydrocarbons
(C) Cooking oil
(D) Nicotine
Ans : (A)

43. The toxicity of which of the following heavy metals leads to liver cirrhosis ?
(A) Copper
(B) Lead
(C) Mercury
(D) Zinc
Ans : (A)

44. If the radius of blood vessels of a person decreases his/her blood pressure will—
(A) increase
(B) decrease
(C) remain unaffected
(D) increase for males and decrease for females
Ans : (A)

45. Cell or tissue death within a living body is called as—
(A) Neutrophilia
(B) Nephrosis
(C) Necrosis
(D) Neoplasia
Ans : (A)

46. Insufficient blood supply in human body is referred as—
(A) Ischemia
(B) Hyperemia
(C) Hemostasis
(D) Hemorrhage
Ans : (A)

47. Typhoid is caused by—
(A) Pseudomonas sp.
(B) Staphylococcus
(C) Bacillus
(D) Salmonella typhi
Ans : (D)

48. BCG immunization is for—
(A) Measles
(B) Tuberculosis
(C) Diphtheria
(D) Leprosy
Ans : (B)

49. Besides carbohydrates, a major source of energy in our food is constituted by—
(A) Proteins
(B) Fats
(C) Minerals
(D) Vitamins
Ans : (B)

50. The limb bones of children become bent if there is deficiency of vitamin—
(A) A
(B) B1
(C) D
(D) E
Ans : (C)

51. The process of removing calcium and magnesium from hard water is known as—
(A) Sedimentation
(B) Filtration
(C) Flocculation
(D) Water softening
Ans : (D)

52. Major gaseous pollutant of the thermal power station is—
(A) H2S
(B) NH3
(C) NO2
(D) SO2
Ans : (D)

53. Leprosy bacillus was discovered by—
(A) Koch
(B) Hansen
(C) Fleming
(D) Harvey
Ans : (B)

54. Where are the traces of Portuguese culture found in India ?
(A) Goa
(B) Calicut
(C) Cannanore
(D) Cochin
Ans : (B)

55. Who, of the following, was awarded ‘Ashok Chakra’ on 26th January, 2009 ?
1. Hemant Karkare
2. M. C. Sharma
3. Gajendra Singh
4. Vijay Salaskar
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) All the above
Ans : (D)

56. Who laid the wreath at the ‘Amar Jawan Jyoti’ (India Gate) on 26th January 2009 ?
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Defence Minister
(C) Home Minister
(D) Minister for External Affairs
Ans : (B)

57. The British introduced the railways in India in order to—
(A) Promote heavy industries in India
(B) Facilitate British commerce and administrative control
(C) Move foodstuff in case of famine
(D) Enable Indians to move freely within the country
Ans : (B)

58. According to Dadabhai Naoroji ‘Swaraj’ meant—
(A) Complete independence
(B) Self government
(C) Economic independence
(D) Political independence
Ans : (C)

59. Which religious reformer of Western India was known as ‘Lokhitwadi’ ?
(A) Gopal Hari Deshmukh
(B) R. G. Bhandarkar
(C) Mahadev Govind Ranade
(D) B. G. Tilak
Ans : (A)

60. Which event brought about a profound change in Ashoka’s administrative policy ?
(A) The third Buddhist Council
(B) The Kalinga War
(C) His embracing of Buddhism
(D) His sending of missionary to Ceylon
Ans : (B)

61. In which of the following states was President’s Rule imposed during the month of January, 2009 ?
(A) Uttarakhand
(B) Meghalaya
(C) Mizoram
(D) Jharkhand
Ans : (D)

62. Who was the first Governor-General of Bengal ?
(A) Robert Clive
(B) Warren Hastings
(C) William Bentinck
(D) Cornwallis
Ans : (B)

63. In which state was the Nalanda University located in India ?
(A) Bengal
(B) Bihar
(C) Orissa
(D) Uttar Pradesh
Ans : (B)

64. Match the following—
(a) Tughlaqabad Fort
(b) Red Fort (at Delhi)
(c) Hauz Khas
(d) The City of Siri
1. Alauddin Khilji
2. Shah Jahan
3. Firoz Shah Tughlaq
4. Ghiyas-ud-din Tughlaq
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 4 2 3 1
(C) 4 3 2 1
(D) 3 1 4 2
Ans : (B)

65. Which of the following are correctly matched ?
1. Sultan Mahmud—Sack of Somnath
2. Muhammad Ghori—Conquest of Sindh
3. Alauddin Khilji—Revolt in Bengal
4. Muhammad Bin Tughlaq—Changiz Khan’s invasion
(A) 1 and 3
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 only
(D) 2 and 4
Ans : ()

66. Which of the undermentioned facts about Taj Mahal is not correct ?
(A) It is a magnificent mausoleum
(B) It was built by Shah Jahan
(C) It is situated outside Agra Fort
(D) The names of artisans who built it are engraved on it
Ans : (D)

67. Where did Babar die ?
(A) Agra
(B) Kabul
(C) Lahore
(D) Delhi
Ans : (A)

68. The present Indian monetary system is based on—
(A) Gold Reserve System
(B) Proportional Reserve System
(C) Convertible Currency System
(D) Minimum Reserve System
Ans : (D)

69. A situation where we have people whose level of income is not sufficient to meet the minimum consumption expenditure is considered as—
(A) Absolute Poverty
(B) Relative Poverty
(C) Urban Poverty
(D) Rural Poverty
Ans : (A)

70. Full convertibility of a rupee means—
(A) Purchase of foreign exchange for rupees freely
(B) Payment for imports in terms of rupees
(C) Repayment of loans in terms of rupees
(D) Determination of rate of exchange between rupee and foreign currencies freely by the market forces of demand and supply
Ans : (D)

71. India is called a mixed economy because of the existence of—
1. Public Sector
2. Private Sector
3. Joint Sector
4. Cooperative Sector
(A) 1, 4
(B) 1, 2
(C) 3, 4
(D) 2, 4
Ans : (B)

72. The term stagflation refers to a situation where—
(A) Growth has no relation with the change in prices
(B) Rate of growth and prices both are decreasing
(C) Rate of growth is faster than the rate of price increase
(D) Rate of growth is slower than the rate of price increase
Ans : (D)

73. Which is the largest state of India, populationwise, according to 2001 census ?
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Bihar
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) West Bengal
Ans : (C)

74. The term ‘Green Revolution’ has been used to indicate higher production through—
(A) Creation of grasslands
(B) Planting more trees
(C) Enhanced agricultural productivity per hectare
(D) Creation of gardens in urban areas
Ans : (C)

75. Revealed Preference Theory was propounded by—
(A) Adam Smith
(B) Marshall
(C) P. A. Samuelson
(D) J. S. Mill
Ans : (C)

76. Gross Domestic Product is defined as the value of all—
(A) Goods produced in an economy in a year
(B) Goods and services produced in an economy in a year
(C) Final goods produced in an economy in a year
(D) Final goods and services produced in an economy in a year
Ans : (D)

77. An exceptional demand curve is one that moves—
(A) Upward to the right
(B) Downward to the right
(C) Horizontally
(D) Vertically
Ans : (A)

78. Production function explains the relationship between—
(A) Initial inputs and ultimate output
(B) Inputs and ultimate consumption
(C) Output and consumption
(D) Output and exports
Ans : (A)

79. Who has been appointed the Governor of RBI after the retirement of Shri Y. V. Reddy ?
(A) Dr. Indra Rangarajan
(B) Dr. Dilip Sanghvi
(C) Dr. Vijay L. Kelkar
(D) Shri D. Subbarao
Ans : (D)

80. The Draft of the Five Year Plans in India is approved by the—
(A) National Development Council
(B) Planning Commission
(C) National Productivity Council
(D) Ministry of Finance
Ans : (A)

81. In Economics the terms ‘Utility’ and ‘Usefulness’ have—
(A) Same meaning
(B) Different meaning
(C) Opposite meaning
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)

82. Nature of unemployment in agriculture in India is—
(A) Only seasonal
(B) Only disguised
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)

83. Among the following the celestial body farthest from the Earth is—
(A) Saturn
(B) Uranus
(C) Neptune
(D) Pluto
Ans : (D)

84. A soap bubble shows colours when illuminated with white light. This is due to—
(A) Diffraction
(B) Polarisation
(C) Interference
(D) Reflection
Ans : (C)

85. The instrument used to see the distant objects on the Earth is—
(A) Terrestrial telescope
(B) Astronomical telescope
(C) Compound microscope
(D) Simple microscope
Ans : (A)

86. A person is hurt on kicking a stone due to—
(A) Inertia
(B) Velocity
(C) Reaction
(D) Momentum
Ans : (C)

87. The fuse in our domestic electric circuit melts when there is a high rise in—
(A) Inductance
(B) Current
(C) Resistance
(D) Capacitance
Ans : (B)

88. Which of the following is an example for cantilever beam ?
(A) Diving board
(B) Bridge
(C) See-saw
(D) Common balance
Ans : (A)

89. It is difficult to cook rice—
(A) At the top of a mountain
(B) At the sea level
(C) Under a mine
(D) Same anywhere
Ans : (A)

90. A dynamo is a device which—
(A) creates mechanical energy
(B) creates electrical energy
(C) Converts mechanical energy into electrical energy
(D) Converts electrical energy into mechanical energy
Ans : (C)

91. X-rays were discovered by—
(A) Becquerel
(B) Roentgen
(C) Marie Curie
(D) Van Lue
Ans : (B)

92. Which of the following substance is highly plastic ?
(A) Quartz
(B) Mica
(C) Granite
(D) Clay
Ans : (D)

93. The National Chemical Laboratory (India) is located in—
(A) Mumbai
(B) Bengaluru
(C) Hyderabad
(D) Pune
Ans : (D)

94. A medicine which promotes the secretion of urine is called—
(A) Adrenaline
(B) Monouretic
(C) Diuretic
(D) Triuretic
Ans : (C)

95. The chemicals released by one species of animals in order to attract the other members of the same species are—
(A) Hormones
(B) Nucleic acids
(C) Pheromones
(D) Steroids
Ans : (C)

96. The tip of the match-stick contains—
(A) Phosphorus pentoxide
(B) White phosphorus
(C) Red phosphorus
(D) Phosphorus trichloride
Ans : (C)

97. Match the source in Column B with the product of Column A.
Column A (Product)
(a) Formic acid
(b) Citric acid
(c) Tartaric acid
Column B (Source)
1. Lemon
2. Tamarind
3. Ants
(a) (b) (c)
(A) 3 2 1
(B) 3 1 2
(C) 2 3 1
(D) 2 1 3
Ans : (B)

98. Commercially, sodium bicarbonate is known as—
(A) Washing soda
(B) Baking soda
(C) Bleaching powder
(D) Soda ash
Ans : (B)

99. An emulsifier is an agent which—

(A) Stabilises an emulsion
(B) Aids the flocculation of an emulsion
(C) Accelerates the dispersion
(D) Homogenises an emulsion
Ans : (A)

100. Mortar is a mixture of water, sand and—
(A) Slaked lime
(B) Quick lime
(C) Limestone
(D) Gypsum
Ans : (A)

SSC Data entry solved paper 2010

1.One of the output devices your computer uses is the
(A) mouse
(B) keyboard
(C) monitor
(D) cord

2.All of these are examples of good posture EXCEPT:
(A) back straight
(B) eyes on monitor
(C) feet on the floor
(D) elbows on the table
3.When you store your work so you can come back to it later, you:
(A) click it
(B) save it
(C) type it
(D) print it

4.An example of an input device is:

(A) a speaker
(B) a mouse
(C) a monitor
(D) a printer

5.The computer screen is also called the:

(A) viewer
(B) TV
(C) monitor
(D) video output device
6. To close a program, you would:
(A) shut down the compute
(B) click the _ in the top right hand corner
(C) click the middle box in the top right hand corner
(D) click the X in the top right hand corner
7. What does it mean to have a clean desktop?
(A) there are no programs open on the desktop
(B) there are no bits of paper on the floor
(C) everything is turned off
(D) you have thoroughly dusted your area
8.The main chip in the computer is the:
9. AM stands for:
(A) Really Accessible Memory
(B) Real Access Memory
(C) Random Available Mode
(D) Random Access Memory

10. The instructions that tell the computer what to do and how to do it.

(A) hardware
(B) software
(C) processor
(D) data flow
11. The number of Anglo-Indians who can be nominated by the President to the Lok Sabha is :
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
12. The sanctioned strength of the Judges of Supreme Court of India including the Chief Justice is :
(A) 15
(B) 17
(C) 20
(D) 26
13. Who was the first President of India to be elected unopposed?
(A) Dr. S. Radhakrishana
(B) N. Sanjiva Reddy
(C) V. V. Giri
(D) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
14. The maximum strength of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha is :
(A) 525 and 250
(B) 552 and 250
(C) 535 and 275
(D) 500 and 250

15. If the Vice-president were to submit his resignation, he would notify to :

(A) The President of India
(B) The Prime Minister
(C) The Chief Justic of India
(D) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
16. What is the minimum strength of a State Legislative Assembly?
(A) 40
(B) 60
(C) 50
(D) 70
17. India is the third developing country to host the 2010 commonwealth Games. The other two are :
(A) Malaysia and South Korea
(B) Singapore and Jamaica
(C) Jamaica & China
(D) Malaysia & Jamaica
18. The Comptroller and Auditor General of India is appointed by the :
(A) Prime Minister of India
(B) President of India
(C) Finance Minister
(D) Lok Sabha

19. Article 370 of the Indian constitution deals with :

(A) The Emergency Powers of the President
(B) The special position of the state of Jammu and Kashmir
(C) The power of the President to seek the advisory opinion of the Supreme Court on any matter of public importance
(D) Distribution of taxes between the Centre and the State
20. The Supreme commander of the Defence Forces of India is :
(A) The Defence Minister
(B) The Prime Minister
(C) The Chief of the Army Staff
(D) The President of India
21. Which of the following rivers flows through a rift valley?
(A) Kaveri
(B) Krishna
(C) Tapti
(D) Godavari
22. The Manas Wildlife Sanctuary is located in the state of :
(A) Assam
(B) Uttar Pradesh
(C) Rajasthan
(D) West Bengal
23. How many major ports are there at present in India?
(A) 8
(B) 12
(C) 15
(D) 14
24. The earth revolves round the sun and its causes :
(A) Differences in longitude and time
(B) Changes of seasons
(C) Deflection of winds and currents
(D) Formation of day and night
25. Latitude of a point on the earth is measured by the distance in :
(A) Kilometres from the Equator
(B) Angles from the Equator
(C) Angles from th e Poles
(D) None of the above
26. The earth is :
(A) Spherical
(B) Elliptical
(C) Oblate Spheroid
(D) Prolate Spheroid
27. Day and Night are equal at the :
(A) Equator
(B) Poles
(C) Prime Meridian
(D) Antarctic
28. The heaviest planet revolving round the sun is :
(A) Moon
(B) Jupiter
(C) Neptune
(D) Pluto
29. The biggest Planet is :
(A) Venus
(B) Mars
(C) Mercury
(D) Jupiter
30. The International Date line passes through :
(A) Exactly through 180° Longitude
(B) Equator
(C) Approximately 180° east or west meridian
(D) 0° Meridian
31. The largest river of Asia is :
(A) Yangtze
(B) Yenisei
(C) Indus
(D) Mekong
32. Which country is called the `Sugar Bowl’ of the world?
(A) Cuba
(B) India
(C) Nepal
(D) Norway
33. Which of the following countries has the largest area in the world?
(B) Russia
(C) Canada
(D) China
34. The world’s highest waterf all, the Angel Falls is situated in :
(A) Venezuela
(C) Guyana
(D) Australia
35. The universe is composed of :
(A) Earth
(B) Earth and the Sun
(C) Mat
(D) None
36. The Temperate Grasslands of South America are called :
(A) Pampas
(B) Steppes
(C) Savanna
(D) Evergreen grasslands
37. Rial is the currency of :
(A) Romania
(B) Iran
(C) Japan
(D) Libya
38. New Moore island is situated in the :
(A) Indian Ocean
(B) Bay of Bengal
(C) Arabian Sea
(D) China Sea
39. Which river in the world carries the maximum volume of water?
(A) Amazon
(B) Nile
(C) Mississippi Missouri
(D) Ganga
40. Which of the following rivers crosses the equator twice?
(A) Amazon
(B) Nile
(C) Congo
(D) Orinoco
41. The Indus Valley civilization is associated with :
(A) Egyptians
(B) Sumerians
(C) Chinese
(D) Mesopotamians
42. The Indus Valley Civilization was famous for :
(A) Well plan ned cities
(B) Efficient civic organisation
(C) Progress of art and architecture
(D) All the above
43. Who was mainly worshipped in the Rig Vedic Period?
(A) Indra
(B) Vishnu
(C) Sun
(D) Trimurti
44. Who is regarded as the great law-giver of ancient India?
(A) Panini
(B) Manu
(C) Kautilya
(D) Dhruv
45. Which of the following is the oldest Veda?
(A) Samaveda
(B) Rigveda
(C) Yajurveda
(D) Atharvaveda
46. Who among the following was called Light of Asia?
(A) Mahavira
(B) Buddha
(C) Akbar
(D) Ashoka
47. Who was the founder of the Gupta dynasty?
(A) Srigupta
(B) Chandragupta II
(C) Samudragupta
(D) Kumargupta
48. The Upanishads are :
(A) A source of Hindu philosophy
(B) Books of Ancient Hindu laws
(C) Books on social behaviour of man
(D) Prayers to God
49. The biggest mosque of India was built by :
(A) Aurangzeb
(B) Shahjahan
(C) Akbar
(D) Jahangir
50. The first Ba ttle of Panipat was fought between :
(A) Sher Shah Suri and Akbar
(B) Humayun and Ibrahim Lodhi
(C) Babar and Ibrahim Lodhi
(D) Babar and Ranasanga
1. (C) 2. (D) 3. (B) 4. (B) 5. (C) 6. (D) 7. (A) 8. (B) 9. (D) 10. (B) 11. (A) 12. (D) 13. (B) 14. (B) 15. (A) 16. (B) 17. (D) 18. (B) 19. (B) 20. (D) 21. (C) 22. (A) 23. (B) 24. (B) 25. (B) 26. (C) 27. (A) 28. (B) 29. (D) 30. (C) 31. (A) 32. (A) 33. (B) 34. (A) 35. (C) 36. (A) 37. (B) 38. (B) 39. (A) 40. (A) 41. (B) 42. (D) 43. (A) 44. (B) 45. (B) 46. (B) 47. (A) 48. (A) 49. (B) 50. (C)

SSC Stenographers Exam Solved Paper : 2010

SSC Stenographers Exam Solved Paper 2010

Directions—(Q. 1–10) Some of the sentences have errors and some have none. Find out which part of a sentence has an error and blacken the rectangle [■] corresponding to the appropriate letter (A), (B) or (C). If there is no error, blacken the rectangle [■ ] corresponding to the letter (D) in the Answer-Sheet.

1. The whole country (A) / was suffering by (B) / a financial crisis. (C) No Error. (D)
2. I do not know where could he have gone (A) / so early (B) / in the morning. (C) No Error. (D)
3. I suggest that (A) / he goes (B) / to the doctor as soon as he returns from taking the examination. (C) No Error. (D)
4. The introduction of tea and coffee (A) / and such other beverages (B) / have not been without some effect. (C) No Error. (D)
5. In spite of the roadblock (A) / the guards allowed us (B) / enter the restricted area to search for our friends. (C) No Error. (D)
6. The newer type of automatic machines (A) / wash (B) / the clothes faster. (C) No Error. (D)
7. By the time (A) / we got our tickets and entered the cinema theatre (B) / the show was already begun. (C) No Error. (D)
8. Each of the students in the computer class (A) / has to type (B) / their own research paper this semester. (C) No Error. (D)
9. The fact of me (A) / being a stranger (B) / does not excuse his conduct. (C) No Error. (D)
10. The sea looks (A) / as if it has been (B) / agitated by a storm. (C) No Error. (D)

Directions—(Q. 11–20) Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word and mark it in the Answer-Sheet.
11. Illicit
(A) immoral
(B) illegal
(C) ineligible
(D) illegible

12. Flair
(A) talent
(B) tendency
(C) bias
(D) need

13. Conservation
(A) preservation
(B) respiration
(C) correction
(D) confusion

14. Abysmal
(A) sickening
(B) gloomy
(C) sad
(D) bottomless

15. Salient
(A) valiant
(B) variant
(C) prudent
(D) prominent

16. Decamp
(A) move
(B) encamp
(C) flee
(D) hide

17. Philanthropist
(A) benefactor
(B) beneficiary
(C) matron
(D) sponsor

18. Exotic
(A) alien
(B) strange
(C) rare
(D) grand

19. Incapacitate
(A) cripple
(B) strengthen
(C) imprison
(D) invent

20. Congregation
(A) concentration
(B) meeting
(C) discussion
(D) judgment

Directions—(Q. 21–30) Choose the word (s) opposite in meaning to the given word and blacken the appropriate rectangle [■] in the Answer-Sheet.
21. Suppress
(A) stir up
(B) rouse
(C) urge
(D) incite

22. Loosen
(A) fasten
(B) accelerate
(C) delay
(D) paste

23. Rebellion
(A) forgiveness
(B) retribution
(C) submission
(D) domination

24. Idiosyncrasy
(A) insanity
(B) sanity
(C) generality
(D) singularity

25. Sanguine
(A) diffident
(B) hopeless
(C) cynical
(D) morose

26. Sobriety
(A) moderation
(B) drunkenness
(C) dizziness
(D) stupidity

27. Extinct
(A) recent
(B) distinct
(C) alive
(D) ancient

28. Fiendish
(A) diabolical
(B) devilish
(C) angelic
(D) friendly

29. Subsequent
(A) eventual
(B) succeeding
(C) prior
(D) comparative

30. Orthodox
(A) revolutionary
(B) heretical
(C) anarchist
(D) generous

Directions—(Q. 31–40) Groups of four words are given. In each group, one word is wrongly spelt. Find the misspelt word and mark your answer in the Answer-Sheet.
31. (A) prioratise
(B) picturise
(C) visualise
(D) individualise

32. (A) mendacious
(B) obnoxcious
(C) pernicious
(D) ferocious

33. (A) pennetrate
(B) irritate
(C) hesitate
(D) perforate

34. (A) passagway
(B) causeway
(C) subway
(D) straightway

35. (A) rapport
(B) support
(C) repport
(D) purport

36. (A) stationery
(B) dictionery
(C) revolutionary
(D) voluntary

37. (A) temperature
(B) temperament
(C) tempastuous
(D) temptation

38. (A) whether
(B) weathere
(C) whither
(D) wither

39. (A) legible
(B) communiceble
(C) incorrigible
(D) eligible

40. (A) audacious
(B) auspicious
(C) caprisious
(D) credulous

Directions—(Q. 41–50) Four alternatives are given for the Idiom/Phrase Bold in the sentence. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase and mark it in the Answer-Sheet.
41. Don’t worry about the silly row. It was just a storm in a tea cup.
(A) important matter dealt with ease
(B) hot tea being served
(C) commotion over a trivial matter
(D) confusion and chaos

42. The Rajput warriors set their face against the invader.
(A) became enemies
(B) turned away from
(C) faced difficulty
(D) opposed strongly

43. Syria is now currying favour with America.
(A) pleasing
(B) favouring
(C) obliging
(D) ingratiating itself with

44. Our Principal is not a man to mince matters.
(A) to confuse issues
(B) to say something mildly
(C) to mix everything together
(D) to be very modest

45. We tend to take for granted the conveniences of modern life.
(A) to consider
(B) to admit
(C) to accept readily
(D) to care for

46. The prodigal son was left high and dry by his friends, when he lost all his money.
(A) wounded
(B) alone
(C) depressed
(D) neglected

47. The success of his first novel completely turned his head.
(A) made him vain
(B) made him look back
(C) changed him completely
(D) made him think

48. She turns up her nose at this kind of dress.
(A) despises
(B) loves
(C) sees no harm in
(D) can just tolerate

49. At last the rioters fell back.
(A) fell on the ground
(B) yielded
(C) ran back
(D) turned back

50. The Madagascar Coup attempt ended in a fiasco.
(A) had no effect
(B) was an utter failure
(C) resulted in blood-shed
(D) was a disaster

Directions—(Q. 51–55) Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence and indicate it by blackening the appropriate rectangle [■] in the. Answer-Sheet.
51. Belief that God is in everything and that everything is God—
(A) Atheism
(B) Pantheism
(C) Scepticism
(D) Animism

52. A picture of a person or a thing drawn in such a highly exaggerated manner as to cause laughter—
(A) Cartoon
(B) Cacography
(C) Cartography
(D) Caricature

53. The state of being miserable bereft of all possessions—
(A) Dependant
(B) Complacent
(C) Destitute
(D) Omnipresent

54. That which cannot be called back—
(A) Irresponsible
(B) Irrevocable
(C) Irredeemable
(D) Incalculable

55. One who journeys from place to place—
(A) Quack
(B) Cannibal
(C) Itinerant
(D) Courier

Directions—(Q. 56–60) A sentence has been given in Active Voice/Passive Voice. Out of the four alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Passive Voice/Active Voice and mark your answer in the Answer-Sheet.
56. We have already done the exercise.
(A) Already, the exercise has been done by us
(B) The exercise has already been done by us
(C) The exercise had been already done by us
(D) The exercise is already done by us

57. The main skills we seek to develop include analyzing, interpreting and evaluating ideas.
(A) The main skills sought by us to develop include analyzing, interpreting and evaluating ideas
(B) The main skills sought to be developed by us include analyzing, interpreting and evaluating ideas
(C) The main skills that we are seeking to be developed include analyzing, interpreting and evaluating ideas
(D) The main skills include analyzing, interpreting and evaluating ideas which are sought by us to develop

58. Who can question Gandhi’s integrity ?
(A) By whom Gandhi’s integrity can be questioned ?
(B) By whom can Gandhi’s integrity be questioned ?
(C) Gandhi’s integrity can be questioned by whom ?
(D) Who could have questioned Gandhi’s integrity ?

59. He presented me a bouquet on my birthday.
(A) A bouquet is presented to me on my birthday by him
(B) I was presented on my birthday a bouquet by him
(C) I was presented a bouquet on my birthday by him
(D) I will be presented a bouquet on my birthday by him

60. This surface feels smooth.
(A) This surface is felt smooth
(B) This surface is smooth when it is felt
(C) This surface when felt is smooth
(D) This surface is smooth as felt

Directions—(Q. 61–65) A part of the sentence is Bold. Below are given alternatives to the Bold part at (A), (B) and (C), which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed, your answer is (D) and mark it in the Answer-Sheet.
61. In the desert, the sun is the master, all else resigns before its merciless rays.
(A) collapses
(B) falls
(C) retires
(D) No improvement

62. I intend to learn French next year.
(A) learning
(B) learn
(C) have learnt
(D) No improvement

63. The police needed him for armed robbery.
(A) liked
(B) was after
(C) were looking to
(D) No improvement

64. There is no more room for you in this compartment.
(A) no more seat
(B) no more space
(C) no more accommodation
(D) No improvement

65. It is easy to see why cities grew on the river banks.
(A) along the river banks
(B) in the river banks
(C) upon the river banks
(D) No improvement

Directions—(Q. 66–70) The first and the last parts of the sentence/passage are numbered (1) and (6). The rest of the sentence/passage is split into four parts and named (P), (Q), (R) and (S). These four parts are not given in their proper order. Read the sentence/passage and find out which of the four combinations is correct and mark your answer in the Answer-Sheet—
66. (1) Einstein was a bad student.
(P) He attended classes regularly and took down careful notes.
(Q) His friend Marcel Grossman, on the other hand, was an irreproachable student
(R) These notes he shared with Einstein
(S) He resented having to attend lectures
(6) If Einstein passed his examinations, it was only because of Grossman

67. (1) Creating and modifying a school timetable is a complex task.
(P) ‘TT Plus’ closely models the real world timetable creation tasks
(Q) So is the job of computerizing it
(R) All timetables can be viewed on the screen before they are actually printed
(S) It has a comprehensive manual and a useful glossary of terms.
(6) It relieves you of the anxiety to get it all right.

68. (1) Three painters competed for a prize.
(P) Ram painted a curtain.
(Q) A butterfly came and sat on the bunch of flowers–was painted by Shyam
(R) And an ox tried to eat from the basket of apples–was painted by Sohan
(S) And the judge himself tried to lift the curtain.
(6) So Ram got the prize.

69. (1) The farmer wanted to please the men.
(P) The poor donkey struggled and kicked.
(Q) They tied his legs together and slung him on a pole.
(R) The farmer and his son put the ends of the pole on their shoulders
(S) He and his son got off the donkey.
(6) They walked into the town carrying the donkey

70. (1) The wife is.
(P) not the husband’s slave
(Q) but his companion and his help-mate
(R) and an equal partner
(S) in all his joys and sorrows,
(6) as free as the husband to choose her own path.

Directions—(Q. 71–80) Sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with the appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by blackening the appropriate rectangle [■] in the Answer-Sheet.
71. When I was speaking to Rani over the phone suddenly we were………
(A) hung up
(B) run out
(C) broken down
(D) cut off

72. The farmer had……… land and many servants.
(A) very little
(B) some
(C) a lot of
(D) many

73. The tribes lived …… customs different from anything the English had ever seen.
(A) on
(B) by
(C) off
(D) with

74. The criminal together with his associates…… arrested.
(A) are
(B) was
(C) were
(D) have

75. By the time I reach America, it …… morning.
(A) is
(B) would be
(C) must be
(D) was

76. When he got married he……… a life insurance policy.
(A) took up
(B) took out
(C) took in
(D) took over

77. In the last few days, …… to help him ?
(A) anything has been done
(B) is anything done
(C) something is done
(D) has anything been done

78. While picking a rose she …… her hand on a thorn.
(A) stung
(B) scratched
(C) cut
(D) damaged

79. The child did not approve…… the father’s plan.
(A) to
(B) by
(C) of
(D) with

80. None of the food was wasted, ……… ?
(A) wasn’t it
(B) was it
(C) weren’t it
(D) were it

Directions—(Q. 81–90) You have two brief passages with five questions following each passage. Read the passages carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives and mark it in the Answer-Sheet.
Passage I
(Question Nos. 81 to 85)
Read not to contradict and confuse, nor to believe and take for granted, nor to find talk and discourse, but to weigh and consider. Some books are to be tasted, others to be swallowed, and some few to be chewed and digested. That is some books are to be read only in parts; others to be read, but not curiously; and some few to be read wholly, and with diligence and attention. Some books may also be read by deputy, and extracts made of them by others but that would be only in the less important arguments and the meaner sort of books; else distilled books are like common distilled waters, flashy things. Reading maketh a full man, conference a ready man and writing an exact man.

81. What should be the purpose of reading a book ?
(A) To contradict
(B) To weigh and consider
(C) To take it for granted
(D) To understand the contents

82. Why are some books to be tasted ?
(A) To be read with great care
(B) To be read with great attention
(C) To be read only in parts
(D) To be read for fun

83. How is man’s character influenced by the art of writing ?
(A) It makes him a great writer
(B) It makes him a ready man
(C) It makes him a full man
(D) It makes him an exact man

84. What kind of books is to be read by the deputy ?
(A) Extraordinary books
(B) Ordinary books
(C) Interesting books
(D) Meaner sort of books

85. What is meant by ‘chewed and digested’ ?
(A) Thoroughly read and understood
(B) Partly read and understood
(C) Understood without any effort
(D) None of the above

Passage II
(Question Nos. 86 to 90)
From the world of magic, hypnosis is moving into the world of medicine. From hocus-pocus performed by men in black capes, to hypnotherapy practised by doctors in white coats. The purpose is to help people stop smoking, lose weight, overcome phobias, and control pain in a variety of medical situations, from childbirth to cancer. Research laboratories are currently checking out the success rate of therapy under hypnosis, while medical journals stand by to publish the results. And the important thing is, nobody is laughing.

In the 1840’s, a British doctor in Calcutta created a controversy by performing over 1000 operations with hypnosis as the only anaesthesia. During the World Wars, German and British doctors used hypnosis to treat war neuroses.
86. Hypnosis means—
(A) auto-suggestion
(B) suggestion made in trance
(C) anaesthesia
(D) hocus-pocus

87. ‘Nobody is laughing’ at hypnotherapy now, because they are—
(A) sad
(B) angry
(C) taking it seriously
(D) annoyed

88. The purpose of hypnotherapy is to—
(A) cure patients
(B) make life easier
(C) carry out research
(D) check out the success rate

89. German and British doctors used hypnosis as—
(A) anaesthesia was not available
(B) anaesthesia was not needed
(C) it was a substitute for anaesthesia
(D) it was fashionable during the war period

90. Treating war neurosis means—
(A) curing madness
(B) curing brain fever
(C) dealing with war problems
(D) curing war anxiety

Directions—(Q. 91–100) In the following passage, some of the words have been left out and the blanks have been numbered from 91 to 100. First read the passage over and try to understand what it is about. Then fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Mark your answer in the Answer-Sheet.
The Aryans …91… about northern Asia and Europe over the wide grasslands. But as their numbers grew and the climate became drier and the land …92…, there was not …93… food for all of them to eat. …94… they were forced to move to other parts of the world in search of …95… They spread out all over Europe and …96… to India, Persia and Mesopotamia. Thus we find that nearly all the people of Europe and northern India and Persia and Mesopotamia, although they differ so much …97… each other now, are really descendants from the same …98…, the Aryans. Of course this was very long …99… and since then much has happened and races have got mixed up to a large extent. The Aryans are …100…, one great ancestral race of the people of the world today.

91. (A) wandered
(B) wondered
(C) worked
(D) worried

92. (A) grassful
(B) green
(C) grassless
(D) dead

93. (A) full
(B) enough
(C) plenty
(D) grass

94. (A) So
(B) As
(C) Because
(D) Yet

95. (A) riches
(B) money
(C) shelter
(D) food

96. (A) went
(B) came
(C) come
(D) has come

97. (A) to
(B) with
(C) on
(D) from

98. (A) friends
(B) family
(C) ancestors
(D) Aryans

99. (A) ago
(B) time
(C) period
(D) wait

100. (A) so
(B) since
(C) therefore
(D) but


1. (B) Change ‘by’ to ‘from’.
2. (A) Reword it as ‘where he could have’.
3. (B) Change ‘goes’ to ‘go’. Strictly grammatically ‘he’ should be followed by ‘goes’. But where suggestion is involved it assumes imperative form. i.e., go.
4. (C) Change ‘have’ to ‘has’ in order to accord with its subject introduction’.
5. (C) Change ‘enter’ to ‘to enter’.
6. (D)
7. (C) Change the clause as “the show had already begun”.
8. (C) Change ‘their’ to ‘his’. Use singular possessive with a singular subject.
9. (A) Change ‘me’ to ‘my’.
10. (B) Change ‘has been’ to ‘had been’.
11. (B) 12. (B) 13. (A) 14. (D) 15. (D) 16. (C) 17. (A) 18. (B)
19. (A) 20. (B) 21. (A) 22. (A) 23. (C) 24. (C) 25. (A) 26. (D)
27. (C) 28. (C) 29. (C) 30. (A)
31. (A) Correct spelling is ‘prioritise’.
32. (B) Correct spelling is ‘obnoxious’.
33. (A) Correct spelling is ‘penetrate’.
34. (A) Correct spelling is ‘passageway’.
35. (C) Correct spelling is ‘report’.
36. (B) Correct spelling is ‘dictionary’.
37. (C) Correct spelling is ‘tempestuous’.
38. (B) Correct spelling is ‘weather’.
39. (B) Correct spelling is ‘communicable’.
40. (C) Correct spelling is ‘capricious’.
41. (C) 42. (D) 43. (D) 44. (A) 45. (C) 46. (D) 47. (A) 48. (A)
49. (D) 50. (B) 51. (B) 52. (A) 53. (C) 54. (C) 55. (C) 56. (B)
57. (B) 58. (B) 59. (C) 60. (A) 61. (A) 62. (D) 63. (B) 64. (D)
65. (A) 66. (A) 67. (A) 68. (B) 69. (B) 70. (D) 71. (D) 72. (C)
73. (D) 74. (B) 75. (B) 76. (C) 77. (D) 78. (B) 79. (C) 80. (B)
81. (B) 82. (C) 83. (D) 84. (D) 85. (A) 86. (B) 87. (C) 88. (A)
89. (A) 90. (D) 91. (A) 92. (C) 93. (B) 94. (A) 95. (D) 96. (B)
97. (D) 98. (C) 99. (A) 100. (C)